Not surprisingly, after the first follows the second Hohenberg-Kohn theorem:
Someone tells you: “To me it looks like the 2nd theorem is a natural consequence of the 1st one, and not a separate independent theorem.” Do you agree? Explain the arguments you have to support your opinion in this forum:
Started by: maartengm
Started by: Rob2026
Started by: Luisda_
Started by: DanielGarciaOrtega
Started by: RonanVdB
Started by: brend.schelkens@student.uantwerpen.be
Started by: Wodan
Started by: warre
Started by: Des
Started by: Jeroen Haijen
Started by: Plume
Started by: stephen wienk
Started by: Cor Boelen
Started by: Amy
Started by: meesha
If you want to dig deeper (now or later), you may study this pedagogical lecture by Mel Levy on (mainly) the Hohenberg-Kohn theorems (part of the CECAM school on Teaching the Theory in DFT):
expected time: 20m
report time spent (page code AW03B)
